22-02-2018, 19:42
What I don't understand is this......
If the USA got through to the men's semis because, having tied in the table with GB and Switzerland, they had beaten both teams so went through because of that. Then why did GB not get straight through, having already beaten the Swiss. Why was there a need for a tie break/play off?
If the USA got through to the men's semis because, having tied in the table with GB and Switzerland, they had beaten both teams so went through because of that. Then why did GB not get straight through, having already beaten the Swiss. Why was there a need for a tie break/play off?